Geography 4742 Notes
Historic Roots of Land Use Institutions
Platt Chap. 3
How did the government come to have authority over land use?
English roots of common law; (there were also Spanish influences, especially the land grant system in the south and west)
Feudal commons (before widespread private ownership) and "Holding (tenure) in Common" with usufruct rights to plots by sefs.
Manor/Commons: Use guided by "customary rules and constraints," low population, agreed-upon limits: resulted in stability, but also rigidity.
Problems of the commons: are they real? Do they continue today in other resources, like fisheries, public lands? Brief discussion of "Tragedy of the Commons" by biologist Garrett Hardin.
This rigidity was not suited to the growth of markets, cities, industry (the
industrial revolution started in
So commons ended in "enclosure" (Parliament started in 1235):
often argued as organic result of post-Roman control (not unlike land
redistribution problems after colonial rule ends in
Move toward “freehold” (instead of usufruct or aristocratic)
Urban migration and growth in
post-feudal
Proprietary owners, and trespass and nuisance laws
Especially: Nuisance, and building codes, which grew out of
Stone/brick building rules, other building details on size, overhang, etc.
Wider streets
Nuisance banned from central
Compensation (by gov. if restrictions impeded use of property)—an important provision---King Charles II in a good mood? Why compensate?
In any case, compensation ended up becoming a article in the U.S. Constitution ("Takings" clause), and we’ll talk more about it later.
"Mixed System" imported to